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You forgot to hilght this bit: Although one founding-era thesaurus limited “arms” (as opposed to “weapons”) to “instruments of offence generally made use of in war,” even that source stated that all firearms constituted “arms.” 1 J. Trusler, The Distinction Between Words Esteemed Synonymous in the English Language37 (1794) (emphasis added).So in essence he seems to be saying both military and non military constitute "arms."
The opinion spends about 20 pages demonstrating that the 2nd Amendment is NOT JUST about military service. The "dangerous and unusual weapons" is the only thing that could be construed as supportive of what you are arguing. The opinion accedes that there are limitations, but Scalia then follows it up with this:"It may well be true today that a militia, to be as effective as militias in the 18th century, would require sophisticated arms that are highly unusual in society at large. Indeed, it may be true that no amount of small arms could be useful against modern-day bombers and tanks. But the fact that modern developments have limited the degree of fit between the prefatory clause and the protected right cannot change our interpretation of the right."This in my opinion totally refutes your position. I read most of this but have to admit not every page and paragraph, so if there is something important that I missed feel free to let me know.
I imagine the process of disarming Americans would go exactly like this, Vin. Have the courts split some hairs, put on a dog and pony show in an attempt to "prove" to the public that they really are taking this matter oh so seriously, and then just like that it's back to slingshots and sharpened sticks...just as intended. The founding fathers weren't dumb men. They didn't create the second amendment as a short term solution for citizens to protect themselves, they no doubt had an eye towards the future and that's why the generalized term "arms" was used instead of a list of the types of weapons present at the time. Because of this I believe it's extremely obvious the goal of the second amendment was to ensure the citizens of this country were at any point in the future as equally equipped as the military of their era. Obviously not tanks and stealth bombers, but concerning guns, I absolutely believe that. Do you really believe they thought single shot guns were the peak of innovation with nowhere to go but down? Obviously not. If the entire point of the second amendment was to allow the citizens to protect themselves from their own government or an invading foreign government (which it was), then it only makes sense that the intention was to allow us to have the same weapons. I don't see how anyone can see it any other way. And yet still none of this matters because legal or illegal guns aren't going anywhere.
Quote from: VinBucFan on February 03, 2013, 11:31:52 PMQuote from: Illuminator on February 03, 2013, 11:25:35 PMThe court ruled in favor of the second amendment. Declaring otherwise doesn't actually make it so. It is rather humorous, though.Illum, do you think the Court was possibly going to rule "not in favor" of the 2nd Amendment? Maybe you're Buggsy's ghost writer?Who knows?
Quote from: Illuminator on February 03, 2013, 11:25:35 PMThe court ruled in favor of the second amendment. Declaring otherwise doesn't actually make it so. It is rather humorous, though.Illum, do you think the Court was possibly going to rule "not in favor" of the 2nd Amendment? Maybe you're Buggsy's ghost writer?
The court ruled in favor of the second amendment. Declaring otherwise doesn't actually make it so. It is rather humorous, though.
Quote from: spartan on February 04, 2013, 08:51:25 PMThe opinion spends about 20 pages demonstrating that the 2nd Amendment is NOT JUST about military service. The "dangerous and unusual weapons" is the only thing that could be construed as supportive of what you are arguing. The opinion accedes that there are limitations, but Scalia then follows it up with this:"It may well be true today that a militia, to be as effective as militias in the 18th century, would require sophisticated arms that are highly unusual in society at large. Indeed, it may be true that no amount of small arms could be useful against modern-day bombers and tanks. But the fact that modern developments have limited the degree of fit between the prefatory clause and the protected right cannot change our interpretation of the right."This in my opinion totally refutes your position. I read most of this but have to admit not every page and paragraph, so if there is something important that I missed feel free to let me know.I am not sure I follow you or your reading. How does the quoted text refute my opinion? What the Court is doing in that text is responding to an argument made by one of the pro-gun briefs brief. One of those groups argued that the 2nd should be read broadly (i.e., NOT as the Court ruled, which was that the 2nd only applied to guns in ordinary use, non-military). One of those groups argued that a militia could not be effective today without more advanced weapons. (That same argument was made on this board -- by Escobar I think.) In accordance with "my position" not refuting it, the Court said (paraphrasing) "no, no, no . . just because ordinary, legal, non-military weapons that citizens can have today would not be effective against 'modern-day bombers and tanks does not mean we are changing our opinion." Spartan, that is what the sentence in bold states. You get that right? That is not refuting "my position," it is AGREEING with "my position" (because its not "my position" per se, I was simply telling you what the Supreme Court said)EDIT: Spartan, look right above this post. Escobar is making the argument again, the argument that I just said the Supreme Court rejectedEDIT #2 -- Spartan, the Miller decision was the prior decison that discussed the TYPES o weapons protected by the 2nd Amendment so the Heller Court has to address Miller. This is what it said about Miller:"We therefore read Miller to say only that the Second Amendment does not protect those weapons not typically possessed by law-abiding citizens for lawful purposes, such as short-barreled shotguns. Translated: there is no 2nd Amendment right that protects weapons "not typically possessed by law abiding citizens for lawful purposes." The VERY REASON the Heller Court struck down the DC ban that was at issue was because it was a ban of HANDGUNS -- which are "typically possessed by law abiding citizens" --- IN THE HOME -- which is a "lawful purpose" Do you see that now? If not, think of it this way, The Heller Court would have UPHELD the DC ban if it was for MACHINE GUNS because MACHINE GUNS are not "typically possessed by law abiding citizens"
You made the assertion that Scalia argued the 2nd Amendment pertained only to non military weapons. Scalia spent a great deal of time arguing that Stevens was wrong in that it referred ONLY to military service. His argument was yes, it referred to militia service in the military sense, but also to non military applications. He also stated that regardless of the effectiveness of a militia against a modern armed force, that does not take away the right as it was originally intended.
I couldn't care less what the SC believes to be honest.
Illuminator is a good poster. He sticks to his guns and makes good points. Some don\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\'t like that.
Quote from: spartan on February 04, 2013, 10:12:07 PMYou made the assertion that Scalia argued the 2nd Amendment pertained only to non military weapons. Scalia spent a great deal of time arguing that Stevens was wrong in that it referred ONLY to military service. His argument was yes, it referred to militia service in the military sense, but also to non military applications. He also stated that regardless of the effectiveness of a militia against a modern armed force, that does not take away the right as it was originally intended. 1. I made the assertion that the Scalia-authored opinion relied on a definition of "arms" that drew a distinction between military and non-military weapon. That is why, Spartan, the Court went on the say, as I just posted above, that the 2nd Am. only protected weapons ordinarily possessed by citizens for lawful purposes. It protects handguns, but not machine guns.2. Your last sentence is just off, but very close. You say this: "He also stated that regardless of the effectiveness of a militia against a modern armed force, that does not take away the right as it was originally intended" What the Court actually said was (paraphrasing) "regardless of the effectiveness of a militia against a modern armed force, that does not take away the right as WE HAVE INTERPRETED IT. In other words, just because modern citizens need more powerful weapons in a hypothetical militia to combat modern weapons (aka the Escobar argument) DOES NOT change our ruling that the rights afforded by the 2nd Am only apply to weapons in ordinarily possessed for lawful purposes (i.e handguns used for home protection, as in the DC case at issue)
Quote from: VinBucFan on February 04, 2013, 10:31:19 PMQuote from: spartan on February 04, 2013, 10:12:07 PMYou made the assertion that Scalia argued the 2nd Amendment pertained only to non military weapons. Scalia spent a great deal of time arguing that Stevens was wrong in that it referred ONLY to military service. His argument was yes, it referred to militia service in the military sense, but also to non military applications. He also stated that regardless of the effectiveness of a militia against a modern armed force, that does not take away the right as it was originally intended. 1. I made the assertion that the Scalia-authored opinion relied on a definition of "arms" that drew a distinction between military and non-military weapon. That is why, Spartan, the Court went on the say, as I just posted above, that the 2nd Am. only protected weapons ordinarily possessed by citizens for lawful purposes. It protects handguns, but not machine guns.2. Your last sentence is just off, but very close. You say this: "He also stated that regardless of the effectiveness of a militia against a modern armed force, that does not take away the right as it was originally intended" What the Court actually said was (paraphrasing) "regardless of the effectiveness of a militia against a modern armed force, that does not take away the right as WE HAVE INTERPRETED IT. In other words, just because modern citizens need more powerful weapons in a hypothetical militia to combat modern weapons (aka the Escobar argument) DOES NOT change our ruling that the rights afforded by the 2nd Am only apply to weapons in ordinarily possessed for lawful purposes (i.e handguns used for home protection, as in the DC case at issue)You might want to change that to "the founding fathers argument". It's very troubling that you so eagerly accept an obviously flawed interpretation of what was intended.
" The answer is "no" and Illum knew it as soon as I commented on his ridiculous post, that is why he never responded."Alright, f*ckwit, I'll answer you idiotic questions." Illum, do you think the Court was possibly going to rule "not in favor" of the 2nd Amendment?"No. They ruled the ban unconstitutional and overturned it. That's what the case was all about. The only one that hasn't figured this out yet is you."Maybe you're Buggsy's ghost writer?"No, you inbred, buck toothed, mullet wearin' halfwit. Scratch that, you're clearly not a halfwit, you're a quarterwit at best. These were the burning questions you had to have answers to? And you still wonder why no one takes you seriously?